Groundwater recharge and runoff conditions are ascertained in the Suixiao coal-mining district using the hydrogen and oxygen isotopes and the trace elements in the unconsolidated pore aquifer of the Cenozoic group, the fissured sandstone aquifer of the Permian system, and the karst fissured limestone aquifer of the Carboniferous Taiyuan Formation and the Ordovician system, which are the main recharge aquifers during coal mining. The main water–rock interactions are pyrite oxidation, cation exchange and adsorption, and carbonate acidification, which are educed by principal component analysis of conventional ions. These results combined with geological conditions prove that hydraulic connection exists generally between the main recharge aquifers, and the groundwater circulation is controlled by faults in the sandstone and limestone aquifers. The water–rock interaction is very weak in the east of the district, which is proved to be a recharge area by Fisher discriminant analysis. This study provides the theoretical basis for the hydrochemistry exploration and the establishment of a water-inrush warning system in a concealed coalfield.

This study addresses the major geo-environmental hazards caused by shallow coal mining in China's western eco-environment frangible area. These hazards are related to the high overburden pressure, surface subsidence, soil and water losses, and land desertification, with consequent vegetation and wildlife losses. To mitigate these hazards, three alternative backfill mining methods are proposed, for three typical shallow coal mining conditions, using aeolian sand-based backfilling materials, which are readily available in this area. The main influencing factor is the backfill material compaction ratio. Its effect on aquiclude deformation and water-conducting fracture evolution are assessed by numerical and physical simulation methods. The potential application of the proposed backfill coal mining alternatives is evaluated and discussed in detail. The results obtained are considered to be valuable for developing a strategy for the coordinated exploitation of coal resources and environmental protection in China's western frangible eco-environment area.

The need to characterize and distinguish geographically adjacent aggregate quarry sources prompted the SEM-EDS analysis of pyrite (FeS₂) within fill material taken from eight different quarry sources. This experiment was undertaken to investigate the possibility of geochemically separating these quarry sources based on the major element concentration of their pyrite. The results show that median values for Fe and S vary by up to 7.6 and 8.55 wt% respectively. By implementing statistical methods, including k-means clustering and principal component analysis, it is possible to geochemically discriminate three of the eight sources.

The Clay-with-flints Formation outcrops on the high chalk plateaux and interfluves of the chalk downs in southern England. Both current and historical definitions of the Clay-with-flints are detailed and important distinctions are identified with other deposits that appear identical but are formed in different ways. Historically pedological or geomorphological studies have been carried out on the deposit. Engineering studies are only carried out where the deposit is crossed by infrastructure. The physical and chemical processes acting on the deposit and the resulting effects on the physical properties are discussed.

In this paper, a decision tree is presented, constructed on the basis of hydrogeological characteristics (water table depth, freshwater thickness, surface area required and distance between wells), to choose the optimal groundwater extraction method in the case of a coastal unconfined aquifer. A comparison is made of the groundwater extraction methods in a freshwater aquifer of limited thickness occurring in coastal dunes in the eastern region of the Province of Buenos Aires (Argentina). The negative effects brought about by the wrong use of the groundwater extraction methods are analysed, because, as a result of excessive extraction, such methods lead to the dramatic decrease of the freshwater reserves. The decision tree is a useful tool to assist decision-makers as it suggests the most suitable groundwater extraction method options (vertical wells or wellpoints), as well as identifying areas that are unsuitable for sustainable groundwater extraction.

Groundwater is best described as an open access good: as a common pool resource others cannot be excluded from using and as a finite resource, its consumption leaves less for others to enjoy. In addition to its obvious benefits to humans and animals, it contributes in sustaining the hydro-environment and life on the planet. Scarcity causes groundwater to become an economic good and have an economic value. By and large, economic valuations respond to changes in the quantity and quality of groundwater. They are based on willingness to pay for maintaining its benefits or willingness to accept compensation for giving them up. There have been some 50 published groundwater valuation studies worldwide in the last 30 years, mostly focusing on groundwater quality and contamination. There is sparsity of valuations in Africa and Asia. The results suggest median economic values of 60–160 and mean values of 70–480 US dollars per household per year. Generally, values are higher in the USA followed by Europe, and lowest in Asia. People's income is a major factor affecting values, but this does not mean that they value groundwater less. Economic valuations and cost–benefit analysis are useful in highlighting people's priorities and choice of options. However, economics alone should not dictate actions for protecting groundwater resources from degradation and depletion.

A logistic regression model and a bivariate statistical analysis were used in this paper to evaluate the groundwater recharge susceptibility. The approach is based on the assessment of the relationship involving groundwater recharge and parameters that influence this hydrological process. Surface parameters and aquifer-related parameters were evaluated as thematic map layers using ArcGIS. Then, a weighted-rating method was adopted to categorize each parameter's map. To assess the role of each parameter in the aquifer recharge, a logistic regression model and a bivariate statistical analysis were applied to the Guenniche phreatic aquifer (Tunisia). Models are explored to establish a map showing the aquifer recharge susceptibility. The code Modflow was used to simulate the consequence of the recharge. The recharge amount was introduced in the model and was tested to verify the recharge effect on the hydraulic head for the two models. The obtained results reveal that the recharge as mapped in the bivariate statistical model has a minor impact on the hydraulic head. Results of the logistic regression model are more significant as the hydraulic head is widely affected. This model provides good results in mapping the spatial distribution of the aquifer recharge susceptibility.

In 2015, the M_w 7.8 Gorkha earthquake struck Nepal, triggering thousands of landslides across the central and eastern Himalayas. These landslides had many adverse effects, including causing widespread damage to low-grade transport routes (e.g. tracks, footpaths) in rural regions that depend on tourism for survival. Langtang Valley is a glacial–periglacial landscape located 60 km north of Kathmandu. It is one of the most popular trekking regions in Nepal and has been severely affected by Gorkha earthquake-triggered and monsoon-triggered landsliding. Here, qualitative and quantitative observations from fieldwork and remote sensing are used to describe the materials and geomorphology of the landslides across Langtang Valley, and to quantify the extent to which coseismic and monsoon-triggered landslides have affected Langtang's trekking infrastructure. The dominant bedrock materials involved within Langtang landslides are found to be a range of gneisses and intruded leucogranites. In total, 64 landslides are found to have intersected trekking paths across Langtang, with coseismic and monsoon-triggered landslides having an impact on c. 3 km and 0.8 km of path respectively. It is observed that the practice of reconstructing paths through unstable landslide deposits is leaving the trekking infrastructure across Langtang increasingly vulnerable to future failure.

Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae, and it remains underdiagnosed in Burkina Faso. We investigated the use of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) for detecting M. leprae in 27 skin samples (skin biopsy samples, slit skin samples, and skin lesion swabs) collected from 21 patients from Burkina Faso and three from Côte d’Ivoire who were suspected of having cutaneous leprosy. In all seven Ziehl-Neelsen-positive skin samples (four skin biopsy samples and three skin swabs collected from the same patient), FISH specifically identified M. leprae, including one FISH-positive skin biopsy sample that remained negative after testing with PCR targeting the rpoB gene and with the GenoType LepraeDR assay. Twenty other skin samples and three negative controls all remained negative for Ziehl-Neelsen staining, FISH, and rpoB PCR. These data indicate the usefulness of a microscopic examination of skin samples after FISH for first-line diagnosis of cutaneous leprosy. Accordingly, FISH represents a potentially useful point-of-care test for the diagnosis of cutaneous leprosy.

Accurate detection of influenza A virus (IAV) is crucial for patient management, infection control, and epidemiological surveillance. The World Health Organization and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have recommended using the M gene as the diagnostic gene target for reverse-transcription-PCR (RT-PCR). However, M gene RT-PCR has reduced sensitivity for recent IAV due to novel gene mutations. Here, we sought to identify novel diagnostic targets for the molecular detection of IAV using long-read third-generation sequencing. Direct nanopore sequencing from 18 nasopharyngeal specimens and one saliva specimen showed that the 5' and 3' ends of the PB2 gene and the entire NS gene were highly abundant. Primers selected for PB2 and NS genes were well matched with seasonal or avian IAV gene sequences. Our novel PB2 and NS gene real-time RT-PCR assays showed limits of detection similar to or lower than that of M gene RT-PCR and achieved 100% sensitivity and specificity in the detection of A(H1N1), A(H3N2), and A(H7N9) in nasopharyngeal and saliva specimens. For 10 patients with IAV detected by M gene RT-PCR conversion in sequentially collected specimens, NS and/or PB2 gene RT-PCR was positive in 2 (20%) of the initial specimens that were missed by M gene RT-PCR. In conclusion, we have shown that PB2 or NS gene RT-PCRs are suitable alternatives to the recommended M gene RT-PCR for diagnosis of IAV. Long-read nanopore sequencing facilitates the identification of novel diagnostic targets.

Routine identification of fungal pathogens from positive blood cultures by culture-based methods can be time-consuming, delaying treatment with appropriate antifungal agents. The GenMark Dx ePlex investigational use only blood culture identification fungal pathogen panel (BCID-FP) rapidly detects 15 fungal targets simultaneously in blood culture samples positive for fungi by Gram staining. We aimed to determine the performance of the BCID-FP in a multicenter clinical study. Blood culture samples collected at 10 United States sites and tested with BCID-FP at 4 sites were compared to the standard-of-care microbiological and biochemical techniques, fluorescence in situ hybridization using peptide nucleic acid probes (PNA-FISH) and matrix-assisted laser desorption ionization–time of flight mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF MS). Discrepant results were analyzed by bi-directional PCR/sequencing of residual blood culture samples. A total of 866 clinical samples, 120 retrospectively and 21 prospectively collected, along with 725 contrived samples were evaluated. Sensitivity and specificity of detection of Candida species (C. albicans, C. auris, C. dubliniensis, C. famata, C. glabrata, C. guilliermondii, C. kefyr, C. krusei, C. lusitaniae, C. parapsilosis, and C. tropicalis) ranged from 97.1 to 100% and 99.8 to 100%, respectively. For the other organism targets, sensitivity and specificity were as follows: 100% each for Cryptococcus neoformans and C. gattii, 98.6% and 100% for Fusarium spp., and 96.2% and 99.9% for Rhodotorula spp., respectively. In 4 of the 141 clinical samples, the BCID-FP panel correctly identified an additional Candida species, undetected by standard-of-care methods. The BCID-FP panel offers a faster turnaround time for identification of fungal pathogens in positive blood cultures that may allow for earlier antifungal interventions and includes C. auris, a highly multidrug-resistant fungus.

Infections due to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) are present worldwide and represent a major public health concern. The capability of PCR followed by high-resolution melt (HRM) curve analysis for the detection of community-associated and livestock-associated MRSA strains and the identification of staphylococcal protein A (spa) locus was evaluated in 74 MRSA samples which were isolated from the environment, humans, and pigs on a single piggery. PCR-HRM curve analysis identified four spa types among MRSA samples and differentiated MRSA strains accordingly. A nonsubjective differentiation model was developed according to genetic confidence percentage values produced by tested samples, which did not require visual interpretation of HRM curve results. The test was carried out at different settings, and result data were reanalyzed and confirmed with DNA sequencing. PCR-HRM curve analysis proved to be a robust and reliable test for spa typing and can be used as a tool in epidemiological studies.

Q fever, caused by Coxiella burnetii, is a worldwide zoonotic disease that may cause severe forms in humans and requires a specific and prolonged antibiotic treatment. Although current serological and molecular detection tools allow a reliable diagnosis of the disease, culture of C. burnetii strains is mandatory to assess their susceptibility to antibiotics and sequence their genome in order to optimize patient management and epidemiological studies. However, cultivating this fastidious microorganism is difficult and restricted to reference centers, as it requires biosafety level 3 laboratories and relies on cell culture performed by experienced technicians. In addition, the culture yield is low, which results in a small number of isolates being available. In this work, we developed a novel high-content screening (HCS) isolation strategy based on optimized high-throughput cell culture and automated microscopic detection of infected cells with specifically designed algorithms targeting cytopathic effects. This method was more efficient than the shell vial assay, at the level of time dependency, when applied to both frozen specimens (7 isolates recovered by HCS only, sensitivity 91% versus 78% for shell vial) and fresh samples (1 additional isolate using HCS, sensitivity 7% versus 5% for shell vial), for which most strains were recovered more rapidly with the new technique. In addition, detecting positive cultures by an automated microscope reduced the need for expertise and saved 24% of technician working time. Application of HCS to antibiotic susceptibility testing of 12 strains demonstrated that it was as efficient as the standard procedure that combines shell vial culture and quantitative PCR.

Quantitative bacterial culture of bronchoalveolar lavage fluids (BALF) is labor-intensive, and the delay involved in performing culture, definitive identification, and susceptibility testing often results in prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The Unyvero lower respiratory tract (LRT) panel (Curetis, Holzgerlingen, Germany) allows the multiplexed rapid detection and identification of 20 potential etiologic agents of pneumonia within 5 h of collection. In addition, the assay includes detection of gene sequences that confer antimicrobial resistance. We retrospectively compared the performance of the molecular panel to routine quantitative bacterial culture methods on remnant BALF. Upon testing 175 BALF, we were able to analyze positive agreement of 181 targets from 129 samples, and 46 samples were negative. The positive percent agreement (PPA) among the microbial targets was 96.5%, and the negative percent agreement (NPA) was 99.6%. The targets with a PPA of <100% were Staphylococcus aureus (34/37 [91.9%]), Streptococcus pneumoniae (10/11 [90.9%]), and Enterobacter cloacae complex (2/4 [50%]). For the analyzable resistance targets, concordance with phenotypic susceptibility testing was 79% (14/18). This study found the Unyvero LRT panel largely concordant with culture results; however, no outcome or clinical impact studies were performed.

Klebsiella species are problematic pathogens in neonatal units and may cause outbreaks, for which the sources of transmission may be challenging to elucidate. We describe the use of whole-genome sequencing (WGS) to investigate environmental sources of transmission during an outbreak of extended-spectrum-β-lactamase (ESBL)-producing Klebsiella michiganensis colonizing neonates. Ceftriaxone-resistant Klebsiella spp. isolated from neonates (or their mothers) and the hospital environment were included. Short-read sequencing (Illumina) and long-read sequencing (MinION; Oxford Nanopore Technologies) were used to confirm species taxonomy, to identify antimicrobial resistance genes, and to determine phylogenetic relationships using single-nucleotide polymorphism profiling. A total of 21 organisms (10 patient-derived isolates and 11 environmental isolates) were sequenced. Standard laboratory methods identified the outbreak strain as an ESBL-producing Klebsiella oxytoca, but taxonomic assignment from WGS data suggested closer identity to Klebsiella michiganensis. Strains isolated from multiple detergent-dispensing bottles were either identical or closely related by single-nucleotide polymorphism comparison. Detergent bottles contaminated by K. michiganensis had been used for washing milk expression equipment. No new cases were identified once the detergent bottles were removed. Environmental reservoirs may be an important source in outbreaks of multidrug-resistant organisms. WGS, in conjunction with traditional epidemiological investigation, can be instrumental in revealing routes of transmission and guiding infection control responses.

Screening for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae at the pharyngeal, urogenital, and anorectal sites is recommended for men who have sex with men (MSM). Combining the three individual-site samples into a single pooled sample could result in significant cost savings, provided there is no significant sensitivity reduction. The aim of this study was to examine the sensitivity of pooled samples for detecting chlamydia and gonorrhea in asymptomatic MSM using a nucleic acid amplification test. Asymptomatic MSM who tested positive for chlamydia or gonorrhoea were invited to participate. Paired samples were obtained from participants prior to administration of treatment. To form the pooled sample, the anorectal swab was agitated in the urine specimen transport tube and then discarded. The pharyngeal swab and 2 ml of urine sample were then added to the tube. The difference in sensitivity between testing of pooled samples and individual-site testing was calculated against an expanded gold standard, where an individual is considered positive if either pooled-sample or individual-site testing returns a positive result. All samples were tested using the Aptima Combo 2 assay. A total of 162 MSM were enrolled in the study. Sensitivities of pooled-sample testing were 86% (94/109; 95% confidence interval [CI], 79 to 92%]) for chlamydia and 91% (73/80; 95% CI, 83 to 96%) for gonorrhea. The sensitivity reduction was significant for chlamydia (P = 0.02) but not for gonorrhea (P = 0.34). Pooling caused 22 infections (15 chlamydia and 7 gonorrhoea) to be missed, and the majority were single-site infections (19/22). Pooling urogenital and extragenital samples from asymptomatic MSM reduced the sensitivity of detection by approximately 10% for chlamydia but not for gonorrhea.

Microscopy and rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) are the main diagnostic tools for malaria but fail to detect low-density parasitemias that are important for maintaining malaria transmission. To complement existing diagnostic methods, an isothermal reverse transcription-recombinase polymerase amplification and lateral flow assay (RT-RPA) was developed. We compared the performance with that of ultrasensitive reverse transcription-quantitative PCR (uRT-qPCR) using nucleic acid extracts from blood samples (n = 114) obtained after standardized controlled human malaria infection (CHMI) with Plasmodium falciparum sporozoites. As a preliminary investigation, we also sampled asymptomatic individuals (n = 28) in an area of malaria endemicity (Lambaréné, Gabon) to validate RT-RPA and assess its performance with unprocessed blood samples (dbRT-RPA). In 114 samples analyzed from CHMI trials, the positive percent agreement to uRT-qPCR was 90% (95% confidence interval [CI], 80 to 96). The negative percent agreement was 100% (95% CI, 92 to 100). The lower limit of detection was 64 parasites/ml. In Gabon, RT-RPA was 100% accurate with asymptomatic volunteers (n = 28), while simplified dbRT-RPA showed 89% accuracy. In a subgroup analysis, RT-RPA detected 9/10 RT-qPCR-positive samples, while loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP) detected 2/10. RT-RPA is a reliable diagnostic test for asymptomatic low-density infections. It is particularly useful in settings where uRT-qPCR is difficult to implement.

Lyme borreliosis is a tick-borne disease caused by the Borrelia burgdorferi sensu lato complex. Bio-Rad Laboratories has developed a fully automated multiplex bead-based assay for the detection of IgM and IgG antibodies to B. burgdorferi. The BioPlex 2200 Lyme Total assay exhibits an improved rate of seropositivity in patients with early Lyme infection. Asymptomatic subjects from endemic and nonendemic origins demonstrated a seroreactivity rate of approximately 4% that was similar to other commercial assays evaluated in this study. Coupled to this result was the observation that the Lyme Total assay retained a high first-tier specificity of 96% while demonstrating a relatively high sensitivity of 91% among a well-characterized CDC Premarketing Lyme serum panel. The Lyme Total assay also performs well under a modified two-tier algorithm (sensitivity, 84.4 to 88.9%; specificity, 98.4 to 99.5%). Furthermore, the new assay is able to readily detect early Lyme infection in patient samples from outside North America.

Human granulocytic anaplasmosis (HGA) is a tick-borne disease caused by the obligate intracellular Gram-negative bacterium Anaplasma phagocytophilum. The disease often presents with nonspecific symptoms with negative serology during the acute phase. Direct pathogen detection is the best approach for early confirmatory diagnosis. Over the years, PCR-based molecular detection methods have been developed, but optimal sensitivity is not achieved by conventional PCR while real-time PCR requires expensive and sophisticated instruments. To improve the sensitivity and also develop an assay that can be used in resource-limited areas, an isothermal DNA amplification assay based on recombinase polymerase amplification (RPA) was developed. To do this, we identified a 171-bp DNA sequence within multiple paralogous copies of msp2 within the genome of A. phagocytophilum. Our novel RPA assay targeting this sequence has an analytical limit of detection of one genome equivalent copy of A. phagocytophilum and can reliably detect 125 bacteria/ml in human blood. A high level of specificity was demonstrated by the absence of nonspecific amplification using genomic DNA from human or DNA from other closely-related pathogenic bacteria, such as Anaplasma platys, Ehrlichia chaffeensis, Orientia tsutsugamushi, and Rickettsia rickettsii, etc. When applied to patient DNA extracted from whole blood, this new RPA assay was able to detect 100% of previously diagnosed A. phagocytophilum cases. The sensitivity and rapidness of this assay represents a major improvement for early diagnosis of A. phagocytophilum in human patients and suggest a role for better surveillance in its reservoirs or vectors, especially in remote regions where resources are limited.

Limited treatment options contribute to high morbidity/mortality rates with carbapenem-resistant, Gram-negative bacterial infections. New approaches for carbapenemase-producing organism (CPO) detection may help inform clinician decision-making on patient treatment and infection control. BD Phoenix CPO detect (CPO detect) detects and classifies carbapenemases in Enterobacterales, Acinetobacter baumannii, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa during susceptibility testing. The clinical performance of CPO detect is reported here. Enterobacterales, Acinetobacter baumannii, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa isolates were evaluated across three sites using CPO detect and a composite reference method (RM); the latter was comprised of the modified carbapenem inactivation method and a MIC screen for ertapenem, imipenem, and meropenem. Multiplex PCR testing was also utilized for Ambler class determination. Positive and negative percentages of agreement (PPA and NPA, respectively) between CPO detect and the RM were determined. The PPA and NPA for Enterobacterales were 98.5% (confidence intervals, 96.6%, 99.4%) and 97.2% (95.8%, 98.2%), respectively. The A. baumannii PPA and NPA, respectively, were 97.1% (90.2%, 99.2%) and 97.1% (89.9%, 99.2%). The P. aeruginosa PPA and NPA, respectively, were 95.9% (88.6%, 98.6%) and 92.3% (86.7%, 95.6%). The PPA values for carbapenemase class designations for all organisms combined and Enterobacterales alone, respectively, were 95.3% (90.2%, 97.8%) and 94.6% (88.8%, 97.5%) for class A, 94.0% (88.7%, 96.6%) and 96.4% (90.0%, 98.8%) for class B, and 95.0% (90.1%, 97.6%) and 99.0% (94.4%, 99.8%) for class D carbapenemases. NPA values for all organisms and Enterobacterales alone ranged from 98.5% to 100%. CPO detect provided accurate detection and classification of CPOs for the majority of isolates of Enterobacterales, Acinetobacter baumannii, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa tested.

MALDI-TOF mass spectrometry (MS) identification of pathogenic filamentous fungi is often impaired by difficulties in harvesting hyphae embedded in the medium and long extraction protocols. The ID Fungi Plate (IDFP) is a novel culture method developed to address such difficulties and improve the identification of filamentous fungi by MALDI-TOF MS. We cultured 64 strains and 11 clinical samples on IDFP, Sabouraud agar-chloramphenicol (SAB), and ChromID Candida agar (CAN2). We then compared the three media for growth, ease of harvest, amount of material picked, and MALDI-TOF identification scores after either rapid direct transfer (DT) or a long ethanol-acetonitrile (EA) extraction protocol. Antifungal susceptibility testing and microscopic morphology after subculture on SAB and IDFP were also compared for ten molds. Growth rates and morphological aspects were similar for the three media. With IDFP, harvesting of fungal material for the extraction procedure was rapid and easy in 92.4% of cases, whereas it was tedious on SAB or CAN2 in 65.2% and 80.3% of cases, respectively. The proportion of scores above 1.7 (defined as acceptable identification) were comparable for both extraction protocols using IDFP (P = 0.256). Moreover, rates of acceptable identification after DT performed on IDFP (93.9%) were significantly higher than those obtained after EA extraction with SAB (69.7%) or CAN2 (71.2%) (P = <0.001 and P = 0.001, respectively). Morphological aspects and antifungal susceptibility testing were similar between IDFP and SAB. IDFP is a culture plate that facilitates and improves the identification of filamentous fungi, allowing accurate routine identification of molds with MALDI-TOF-MS using a rapid-extraction protocol.

Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI) is one of the most common health care-associated infections that can cause significant morbidity and mortality. CDI diagnosis involves laboratory testing in conjunction with clinical assessment. The objective of this study was to assess the performance of various C. difficile tests and to compare clinical characteristics, Xpert C. difficile/Epi (PCR) cycle threshold (C_T), and Singulex Clarity C. diff toxins A/B (Clarity) concentrations between groups with discordant test results. Unformed stool specimens from 200 hospitalized adults (100 PCR positive and 100 negative) were tested by cell cytotoxicity neutralization assay (CCNA), C. diff Quik Chek Complete (Quik Chek), Premier Toxins A and B, and Clarity. Clinical data, including CDI severity and CDI risk factors, were compared between discordant test results. Compared to CCNA, PCR had the highest sensitivity at 100% and Quik Chek had the highest specificity at 100%. Among clinical and laboratory data studied, prevalences of leukocytosis, prior antibiotic use, and hospitalizations were consistently higher across all subgroups in comparisons of toxin-positive to toxin-negative patients. Among PCR-positive samples, the median C_T was lower in toxin-positive samples than in toxin-negative samples; however, C_T ranges overlapped. Among Clarity-positive samples, the quantitative toxin concentration was significantly higher in toxin-positive samples than in toxin-negative samples as determined by CCNA and Quik Chek Toxin A and B. Laboratory tests for CDI vary in sensitivity and specificity. The quantitative toxin concentration may offer value in guiding CDI diagnosis and treatment. The presence of leukocytosis, prior antibiotic use, and previous hospitalizations may assist with CDI diagnosis, while other clinical parameters may not be consistently reliable.

The number of onsite clinical microbiology laboratories in hospitals is decreasing, likely related to the business model for laboratory consolidation and labor shortages, and this impacts a variety of clinical practices, including that of banking isolates for clinical or epidemiologic purposes. To determine the impact of these trends, infectious disease (ID) physicians were surveyed regarding their perceptions of offsite services. Clinical microbiology practices for retention of clinical isolates for future use were also determined. Surveys were sent to members of the Infectious Diseases Society of America’s (IDSA) Emerging Infections Network (EIN). The EIN is a sentinel network of ID physicians who care for adult and/or pediatric patients in North America and who are members of IDSA. The response rate was 763 (45%) of 1,680 potential respondents. Five hundred forty (81%) respondents reported interacting with the clinical microbiology laboratory. Eighty-six percent of respondents thought an onsite laboratory very important for timely diagnostic reporting and ongoing communication with the clinical microbiologist. Thirty-five percent practiced in institutions where the core microbiology laboratory has been moved offsite, and an additional 7% (n = 38) reported that movement of core laboratory functions offsite was being considered. The respondents reported that only 24% of laboratories banked all isolates, with the majority saving isolates for less than 30 days. Based on these results, the trend toward centralized core laboratories negatively impacts the practice of ID physicians, potentially delays effective implementation of prompt and targeted care for patients with serious infections, and similarly adversely impacts infection control epidemiologic investigations.

Prosthetic joint infections are difficult to diagnose and treat due to biofilm formation by the causative pathogens. Pathogen identification relies on microbial culture that requires days to weeks, and in the case of chronic biofilm infections, lacks sensitivity. Diagnosis of infection is often delayed past the point of effective treatment such that only the removal of the implant is curative. Early diagnosis of an infection based on antibody detection might lead to less invasive, early interventions. Our study examined antibody-based assays against the Staphylococcus aureus biofilm-upregulated antigens SAOCOL0486 (a lipoprotein), glucosaminidase (a domain of SACOL1062), and SACOL0688 (the manganese transporter MntC) for detection of chronic S. aureus infection. We evaluated these antigens by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) using sera from naive rabbits and rabbits with S. aureus-mediated osteomyelitis, and then we validated a proof of concept for the lateral flow assay (LFA). The SACOL0688 LFA demonstrated 100% specificity and 100% sensitivity. We demonstrated the clinical diagnostic utility of the SACOL0688 antigen using synovial fluid (SF) from humans with orthopedic implant infections. Elevated antibody levels to SACOL0688 in clinical SF specimens correlated with 91% sensitivity and 100% specificity for the diagnosis of S. aureus infection by ELISA. We found measuring antibodies levels to SACOL0688 in SF using ELISA or LFA provides a tool for the sensitive and specific diagnosis of S. aureus prosthetic joint infection. Development of the LFA diagnostic modality is a desirable, cost-effective option, potentially providing rapid readout in minutes for chronic biofilm infections.

Pyrazinamide (PZA) is considered the pivot drug in all tuberculosis treatment regimens due to its particular action on the persistent forms of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. However, no drug susceptibility test (DST) is considered sufficiently reliable for routine application. Although molecular tests are endorsed, their application is limited to known PZA resistance associated mutations. Microbiological DSTs for PZA have been restricted by technical limitations, especially the necessity for an acidic pH. Here, for the first time, MODS culture at neutral pH was evaluated using high PZA concentrations (400 and 800 μg/ml) to determine PZA susceptibility directly from sputum samples. Sputum samples were cultured with PZA for up to 21 days at 37°C. Plate reading was performed at two time points: R1 (mean, 10 days) and R2 (mean, 13 days) for each PZA concentration. A consensus reference test, composed of MGIT-PZA, pncA sequencing, and the classic Wayne test, was used. A total of 182 samples were evaluated. The sensitivity and specificity for 400 μg/ml ranged from 76.9 to 89.7 and from 93.0 to 97.9%, respectively, and for 800 μg/ml ranged from 71.8 to 82.1 and from 95.8 to 98.6%, respectively. Compared to MGIT-PZA, our test showed a similar turnaround time (medians of 10 and 12 days for PZA-sensitive and -resistant isolates, respectively). In conclusion, MODS-PZA is presented as a fast, simple, and low-cost DST that could complement the MODS assay to evaluate resistance to the principal first-line antituberculosis drugs. Further optimization of test conditions would be useful in order to increase its performance.

There are roughly 48,000 deaths caused by influenza annually and an estimated 200,000 people who have undiagnosed human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). These are examples of acute and chronic illnesses that can be identified by employing a CLIA-waived test. Pharmacies across the country have been incorporating CLIA-waived point-of-care tests (POCT) into disease screening and management programs offered in the pharmacy. The rationale behind these programs is discussed. Additionally, a summary of clinical data for some of these programs in the infectious disease arena is provided. Finally, we discuss the future potential for CLIA-waived POCT-based programs in community pharmacies.

This minireview focuses on the microbiologic evaluation of patients with asymptomatic bacteriuria, as well as indications for antibiotic treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is defined as two consecutive voided specimens (preferably within 2 weeks) with the same bacterial species, isolated in quantitative counts of ≥10⁵ CFU/ml in women, including pregnant women; a single voided urine specimen with one bacterial species isolated in a quantitative count ≥10⁵ CFU/ml in men; and a single catheterized urine specimen with one or more bacterial species isolated in a quantitative count of ≥10⁵ CFU/ml in either women or men (or ≥10² CFU/ml of a single bacterial species from a single catheterized urine specimen). Any urine specimen with ≥10⁴ CFU/ml group B Streptococcus is significant for asymptomatic bacteriuria in a pregnant woman. Asymptomatic bacteriuria occurs, irrespective of pyuria, in the absence of signs or symptoms of a urinary tract infection. The two groups with the best evidence of adverse outcomes in the setting of untreated asymptomatic bacteriuria include pregnant women and patients who undergo urologic procedures with risk of mucosal injury. Screening and treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not recommended in the following patient populations: pediatric patients, healthy nonpregnant women, older patients in the inpatient or outpatient setting, diabetic patients, patients with an indwelling urethral catheter, patients with impaired voiding following spinal cord injury, patients undergoing nonurologic surgeries, and nonrenal solid-organ transplant recipients. Renal transplant recipients beyond 1 month posttransplant should not undergo screening and treatment for asymptomatic bacteriuria. There is insufficient evidence to recommend for or against screening of renal transplant recipients within 1 month, patients with high-risk neutropenia, or patients with indwelling catheters at the time of catheter removal. Unwarranted antibiotics place patients at increased risk of adverse effects (including Clostridioides difficile diarrhea) and contribute to antibiotic resistance. Methods to reduce unnecessary screening for and treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria aid in antibiotic stewardship.

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) is an important cause of meningitis and meningoencephalitis. As testing for HHV-6 in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is more readily available using the FilmArray Meningitis/Encephalitis panel (FA-ME; BioFire Diagnostics, Salt Lake City, UT), we aimed to determine the clinical significance of detecting HHV-6 in order to identify true infections and to ensure appropriate antiviral initiation. Chart review on 25 patients positive for HHV-6 by FA-ME was performed to determine clinical presentation, comorbidity, treatment, and outcome. The presence of chromosomally integrated HHV-6 (ciHHV-6) DNA was also investigated. Of 1,005 children tested by FA-ME, HHV-6 was detected in 25 (2.5%). Five patients were diagnosed with either HHV-6 meningitis or meningoencephalitis based on HHV-6 detection in CSF, clinical presentation, and radiographic findings. Detection of HHV-6 by FA-ME led to discontinuation of acyclovir within 12.0 h in all 12 patients empirically treated with acyclovir. Six of the 12 patients were started on ganciclovir therapy within 6.8 h; 4 of these were treated specifically for HHV-6 infection, whereas therapy was discontinued in the remaining 2 patients. CSF parameters were not generally predictive of HHV-6 positivity. The presence of ciHHV-6 was confirmed in 3 of 18 patients who could be tested. Five of the 25 patients included in the study were diagnosed with HHV-6 meningitis/meningoencephalitis. FA-ME results led to discontinuation of empirical antiviral treatment in 12 patients and appropriate initiation of ganciclovir in 4 patients. In our institution, detection of HHV-6 using FA-ME led to faster establishment of disease etiology and optimization of antimicrobial therapy.

On 31 December 2019, the World Health Organization was informed of a cluster of cases of pneumonia of unknown etiology in Wuhan, China. Subsequent investigations identified a novel coronavirus, now named severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2), from the affected patients. Highly sensitive and specific laboratory diagnostics are important for controlling the rapidly evolving SARS-CoV-2-associated coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) epidemic. In this study, we developed and compared the performance of three novel real-time reverse transcription-PCR (RT-PCR) assays targeting the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase (RdRp)/helicase (Hel), spike (S), and nucleocapsid (N) genes of SARS-CoV-2 with that of the reported RdRp-P2 assay, which is used in >30 European laboratories. Among the three novel assays, the COVID-19-RdRp/Hel assay had the lowest limit of detection in vitro (1.8 50% tissue culture infective doses [TCID₅₀]/ml with genomic RNA and 11.2 RNA copies/reaction with in vitro RNA transcripts). Among 273 specimens from 15 patients with laboratory-confirmed COVID-19 in Hong Kong, 77 (28.2%) were positive by both the COVID-19-RdRp/Hel and RdRp-P2 assays. The COVID-19-RdRp/Hel assay was positive for an additional 42 RdRp-P2-negative specimens (119/273 [43.6%] versus 77/273 [28.2%]; P < 0.001), including 29/120 (24.2%) respiratory tract specimens and 13/153 (8.5%) non-respiratory tract specimens. The mean viral load of these specimens was 3.21 x 10⁴ RNA copies/ml (range, 2.21 x 10² to 4.71 x 10⁵ RNA copies/ml). The COVID-19-RdRp/Hel assay did not cross-react with other human-pathogenic coronaviruses and respiratory pathogens in cell culture and clinical specimens, whereas the RdRp-P2 assay cross-reacted with SARS-CoV in cell culture. The highly sensitive and specific COVID-19-RdRp/Hel assay may help to improve the laboratory diagnosis of COVID-19.

The new decade of the 21^st century (2020) started with the emergence of a novel coronavirus known as SARS-CoV-2 that caused an epidemic of coronavirus disease (COVID-19) in Wuhan, China. It is the third highly pathogenic and transmissible coronavirus after severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus (SARS-CoV) and Middle East respiratory syndrome coronavirus (MERS-CoV) emerged in humans. The source of origin, transmission to humans, and mechanisms associated with the pathogenicity of SARS-CoV-2 are not yet clear, however, its resemblance to SARS-CoV and several other bat coronaviruses was recently confirmed through genome sequencing-related studies. The development of therapeutic strategies is necessary in order to prevent further epidemics and cure infections. In this review, we summarize current information about the emergence, origin, diversity, and epidemiology of three pathogenic coronaviruses with a specific focus on the current outbreak in Wuhan, China. Furthermore, we discuss the clinical features and potential therapeutic options that may be effective against SARS-CoV-2.

The QIAstat-Dx Respiratory Panel (QIAstat-Dx RP) is a multiplex in vitro diagnostic test for the qualitative detection of 20 pathogens directly from nasopharyngeal swab (NPS) specimens. The assay is performed using a simple sample-to-answer platform with results available in approximately 69 min. The pathogens identified are adenovirus, coronavirus 229E, coronavirus HKU1, coronavirus NL63, coronavirus OC43, human metapneumovirus A and B, influenza A, influenza A H1, influenza A H3, influenza A H1N1/2009, influenza B, parainfluenza virus 1, parainfluenza virus 2, parainfluenza virus 3, parainfluenza virus 4, rhinovirus/enterovirus, respiratory syncytial virus A and B, Bordetella pertussis, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. This multicenter evaluation provides data obtained from 1,994 prospectively collected and 310 retrospectively collected (archived) NPS specimens with performance compared to that of the BioFire FilmArray Respiratory Panel, version 1.7. The overall percent agreement between QIAstat-Dx RP and the comparator testing was 99.5%. In the prospective cohort, the QIAstat-Dx RP demonstrated a positive percent agreement of 94.0% or greater for the detection of all but four analytes: coronaviruses 229E, NL63, and OC43 and rhinovirus/enterovirus. The test also demonstrated a negative percent agreement of ≥97.9% for all analytes. The QIAstat-Dx RP is a robust and accurate assay for rapid, comprehensive testing for respiratory pathogens.

The IR Biotyper is a new automated typing system based on Fourier-transform infrared (FT-IR) spectroscopy that gives results within 4 h. We aimed (i) to use the IR Biotyper to retrospectively analyze an outbreak of extended-spectrum beta-lactamase-producing Klebsiella pneumoniae (ESBL-KP) in a neonatal intensive care unit and to compare results to BOX-PCR and whole-genome sequencing (WGS) results as the gold standard and (ii) to assess how the cutoff values used to define clusters affect the discriminatory power of the IR Biotyper. The sample consisted of 18 isolates from 14 patients. Specimens were analyzed in the IR Biotyper using the default analysis settings, and spectra were analyzed using OPUS 7.5 software. The software contains a feature that automatically proposes a cutoff value to define clusters; the cutoff value defines up to which distance the spectra are considered to be in the same cluster. Based on FT-IR, the outbreak represented 1 dominant clone, 1 secondary clone, and several unrelated clones. FT-IR results, using the cutoff value generated by the accompanying software after 4 replicates, were concordant with WGS for all but 1 isolate. BOX-PCR was underdiscriminatory compared to the other two methods. Using the cutoff value generated after 12 replicates, the results of FT-IR and WGS were completely concordant. The IR Biotyper can achieve the same typeability and discriminatory power as genome-based methods. However, to attain this high performance requires either previous, strain-dependent knowledge about the optimal technical parameters to be used or validation by a second method.

Serological testing for nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) has recently been reinvigorated by the implementation of novel Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-specific IgA and IgG antibodies from a proteome array. Although proteome arrays are well suited for comprehensive antigen selection, they are not applicable for large-scale studies. We adapted a 13-marker EBV antigen signature for NPC risk identified by proteome arrays to multiplex serology to establish an assay for large-scale studies. Taiwanese NPC cases (n = 175) and matched controls (n = 175) were used for assay validation. Spearman’s correlation was calculated, and the diagnostic value of all multiplex markers was assessed independently using the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (AUC). Two refined signatures were identified using stepwise logistic regression and internally validated with 10-fold cross validation. Array and multiplex serology showed strong correlation for each individual EBV marker, as well as for a 13-marker combined model on continuous data. Two refined signatures with either four (LF2 and BGLF2 IgG, LF2 and BMRF1 IgA) or two (LF2 and BGLF2 IgG) antibodies on dichotomous data were identified as the most parsimonious set of serological markers able to distinguish NPC cases from controls with AUCs of 0.992 (95% confidence interval [CI], 0.983 to 1.000) and 0.984 (95% CI, 0.971 to 0.997), respectively. Neither differed significantly from the 13-marker model (AUC, 0.992; 95% CI, 0.982 to 1.000). All models were internally validated. Multiplex serology successfully validated the original EBV proteome microarray data. Two refined signatures of four and two antibodies were capable of detecting NPC with 99.2% and 98.4% accuracy.

In the olfactory bulb, a cAMP/PKA/CREB-dependent form of learning occurs in the first week of life that provides a unique mammalian model for defining the epigenetic role of this evolutionarily ancient plasticity cascade. Odor preference learning in the week-old rat pup is rapidly induced by a 10-min pairing of odor and stroking. Memory is demonstrable at 24 h, but not 48 h, posttraining. Using this paradigm, pups that showed peppermint preference 30 min posttraining were sacrificed 20 min later for laser microdissection of odor-encoding mitral cells. Controls were given odor only. Microarray analysis revealed that 13 nonprotein-coding mRNAs linked to mRNA translation and splicing and 11 protein-coding mRNAs linked to transcription differed with odor preference training. MicroRNA23b, a translation inhibitor of multiple plasticity-related mRNAs, was down-regulated. Protein-coding transcription was up-regulated for Sec23b, Clic2, Rpp14, Dcbld1, Magee2, Mstn, Fam229b, RGD1566265, and Mgst2. Gng12 and Srcg1 mRNAs were down-regulated. Increases in Sec23b, Clic2, and Dcbld1 proteins were confirmed in mitral cells in situ at the same time point following training. The protein-coding changes are consistent with extracellular matrix remodeling and ryanodine receptor involvement in odor preference learning. A role for CREB and AP1 as triggers of memory-related mRNA regulation is supported. The small number of gene changes identified in the mitral cell input/output link for 24 h memory will facilitate investigation of the nature, and reversibility, of changes supporting temporally restricted long-term memory.

Behavioral flexibility is important in a changing environment. Previous research suggests that systems consolidation, a long-term poststorage process that alters memory traces, may reduce behavioral flexibility. However, exactly how systems consolidation affects flexibility is unknown. Here, we tested how systems consolidation affects: (1) flexibility in response to value changes and (2) flexibility in response to changes in the optimal sequence of actions. Mice were trained to obtain food rewards in a Y-maze by switching nose pokes between three arms. During initial training, all arms were rewarded and mice simply had to switch arms in order to maximize rewards. Then, after either a 1 or 28 d delay, we either devalued one arm, or we reinforced a specific sequence of pokes. We found that after a 1 d delay mice adapted relatively easily to the changes. In contrast, mice given a 28 d delay struggled to adapt, especially for changes to the optimal sequence of actions. Immediate early gene imaging suggested that the 28 d mice were less reliant on their hippocampus and more reliant on their medial prefrontal cortex. These data suggest that systems consolidation reduces behavioral flexibility, particularly for changes to the optimal sequence of actions.

In obsessive–compulsive disorder (OCD), functional behaviors such as checking that a door is locked become dysfunctional, maladaptive, and debilitating. However, it is currently unknown how aversive and appetitive motivations interact to produce functional and dysfunctional behavior in OCD. Here we show a double dissociation in the effects of anxiogenic cues and sensitivity to rewarding stimuli on the propensity to develop functional and dysfunctional checking behavior in a rodent analog of OCD, the observing response task (ORT). While anxiogenic manipulations of perceived threat (presentation of threat-associated contextual cues) and actual threat (punishment of incorrect responding on the ORT) enhanced functional checking, dysfunctional checking was unaffected. In contrast, rats that had previously been identified as "sign-trackers" on an autoshaping task—and therefore were highly sensitive to the incentive salience of appetitive environmental cues—selectively showed elevated levels of dysfunctional checking under a range of conditions, but particularly so under conditions of uncertainty. These data indicate that functional and dysfunctional checking are dissociable and supported by aversive and appetitive motivational processes, respectively. While functional checking is modulated by perceived and actual threat, dysfunctional checking recruits appetitive motivational processes, possibly akin to the "incentive habits" that contribute to drug-seeking in addiction.

In recent years, there have been intensive debates on whether healthy adults acquire new word knowledge through fast mapping (FM) by a different mechanism from explicit encoding (EE). In this study, we focused on this issue and investigated to what extent retention interval, prior knowledge (PK), and lure type modulated memory after FM and EE. Healthy young participants were asked to learn novel word-picture associations through both FM and EE. Half of the pictures were from familiar categories (i.e., high PK) and the other half were from unfamiliar categories (i.e., low PK). After 10 min and 1 wk, the participants were tested by forced-choice (FC) tasks, with lures from different categories (Experiment 1) or from the same categories of the target pictures (Experiment 2). Pseudowords were used to denote names of the novel pictures and baseline performance was controlled for each task. The results showed that in both Experiments 1 and 2, memory performance remained stable after FM, while it declined after EE from 10 min to 1 wk. Moreover, the effect of PK appeared at 10 min after FM while at 1 wk after EE in Experiment 2. PK enhanced memory of word-picture associations when the lures were from the same categories (Experiment 2), rather than from different categories (Experiment 1). These results were largely confirmed in Experiment 3 when encoding condition was manipulated as a between-subjects factor, while lure type as a within-subjects factor. The findings suggest that different from EE, FM facilitates rapid acquisition and consolidation of word-picture knowledge, and highlight that PK plays an important role in this process by enhancing access to detailed information.

We investigated whether cycloheximide (CHX) would induce amnesia for the stress-induced impairment of extinction retrieval. First, a single restraint stress session was demonstrated to impair extinction retrieval, but not fear conditioning. A second experiment showed that when CHX was administered immediately after restraint, rats exhibited significant extinction retrieval at test (i.e., retrograde amnesia for the stress). In a third experiment, the stress session impaired various amounts of extinction durations, suggesting that the stress inhibited extinction retrieval rather than enhancing the original fear learning. These results suggest memories for acute stress are susceptible to disruption, which could have clinical implications.

The first Biograph Vision PET/CT system (Siemens Healthineers) was installed at the University Medical Center Groningen. Improved performance of this system could allow for a reduction in activity administration or scan duration. This study evaluated the effects of reduced scan duration in oncologic ¹⁸F-FDG PET imaging on quantitative and subjective imaging parameters and its influence on clinical image interpretation. Methods: Patients referred for a clinical PET/CT scan were enrolled in this study, received a weight-based ¹⁸F-FDG injected activity, and underwent list-mode PET acquisition at 180 s per bed position (s/bp). Acquired PET data were reconstructed using the vendor-recommended clinical reconstruction protocol (hereafter referred to as "clinical"), using the clinical protocol with additional 2-mm gaussian filtering (hereafter referred to as "clinical+G2"), and—in conformance with European Association of Nuclear Medicine Research Ltd. (EARL) specifications—using different scan durations per bed position (180, 120, 60, 30, and 10 s). Reconstructed images were quantitatively assessed for comparison of SUVs and noise. In addition, clinically reconstructed images were qualitatively evaluated by 3 nuclear medicine physicians. Results: In total, 30 oncologic patients (22 men, 8 women; age: 48–88 y [range], 67 ± 9.6 y [mean ± SD]) received a single weight-based (3 MBq/kg) ¹⁸F-FDG injected activity (weight: 45–123 kg [range], 81 ± 15 kg [mean ± SD]; activity: 135–380 MBq [range], 241 ± 47.3 MBq [mean ± SD]). Significant differences in lesion SUV_max were found between the 180-s/bp images and the 30- and 10-s/bp images reconstructed using the clinical protocols, whereas no differences were found in lesion SUV_peak. EARL-compliant images did not show differences in lesion SUV_max or SUV_peak between scan durations. Quantitative parameters showed minimal deviation (~5%) in the 60-s/bp images. Therefore, further subjective image quality assessment was conducted using the 60-s/bp images. Qualitative assessment revealed the influence of personal preference on physicians’ willingness to adopt the 60-s/bp images in clinical practice. Although quantitative PET parameters differed minimally, an increase in noise was observed. Conclusion: With the Biograph Vision PET/CT system for oncologic ¹⁸F-FDG imaging, scan duration or activity administration could be reduced by a factor of 3 or more with the use of the clinical+G2 or the EARL-compliant reconstruction protocol.

Brain-infiltrating leukocytes contribute to multiple sclerosis (MS) and autoimmune encephalomyelitis and likely play a role in traumatic brain injury, seizure, and stroke. Brain-infiltrating leukocytes are also primary targets for MS disease-modifying therapies. However, no method exists for noninvasively visualizing these cells in a living organism. 1-(2'-deoxy-2'-¹⁸F-fluoroarabinofuranosyl) cytosine (¹⁸F-FAC) is a PET radiotracer that measures deoxyribonucleoside salvage and accumulates preferentially in immune cells. We hypothesized that ¹⁸F-FAC PET could noninvasively image brain-infiltrating leukocytes. Methods: Healthy mice were imaged with ¹⁸F-FAC PET to quantify if this radiotracer crosses the blood–brain barrier (BBB). Experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) is a mouse disease model with brain-infiltrating leukocytes. To determine whether ¹⁸F-FAC accumulates in brain-infiltrating leukocytes, EAE mice were analyzed with ¹⁸F-FAC PET, digital autoradiography, and immunohistochemistry, and deoxyribonucleoside salvage activity in brain-infiltrating leukocytes was analyzed ex vivo. Fingolimod-treated EAE mice were imaged with ¹⁸F-FAC PET to assess if this approach can monitor the effect of an immunomodulatory drug on brain-infiltrating leukocytes. PET scans of individuals injected with 2-chloro-2'-deoxy-2'-¹⁸F-fluoro-9-β-d-arabinofuranosyl-adenine (¹⁸F-CFA), a PET radiotracer that measures deoxyribonucleoside salvage in humans, were analyzed to evaluate whether ¹⁸F-CFA crosses the human BBB. Results: ¹⁸F-FAC accumulates in the healthy mouse brain at levels similar to ¹⁸F-FAC in the blood (2.54 ± 0.2 and 3.04 ± 0.3 percentage injected dose per gram, respectively) indicating that ¹⁸F-FAC crosses the BBB. EAE mice accumulate ¹⁸F-FAC in the brain at 180% of the levels of control mice. Brain ¹⁸F-FAC accumulation localizes to periventricular regions with significant leukocyte infiltration, and deoxyribonucleoside salvage activity is present at similar levels in brain-infiltrating T and innate immune cells. These data suggest that ¹⁸F-FAC accumulates in brain-infiltrating leukocytes in this model. Fingolimod-treated EAE mice accumulate ¹⁸F-FAC in the brain at 37% lower levels than control-treated EAE mice, demonstrating that ¹⁸F-FAC PET can monitor therapeutic interventions in this mouse model. ¹⁸F-CFA accumulates in the human brain at 15% of blood levels (0.08 ± 0.01 and 0.54 ± 0.07 SUV, respectively), indicating that ¹⁸F-CFA does not cross the BBB in humans. Conclusion: ¹⁸F-FAC PET can visualize brain-infiltrating leukocytes in a mouse MS model and can monitor the response of these cells to an immunomodulatory drug. Translating this strategy into humans will require exploring additional radiotracers.